Project Management Question Bank
for Exam preparation

Q2. A technique that enhances brainstorming with a voting process used to rank the most useful ideas so they can be taken up for further brainstorming is:

1. Six thinking hats
2. Nominal group technique
3. Affinity diagram
4. Mind mapping

Q3. You are taking over a project and determine the following: Activity B has an early finish (EF) of day 3, a late finish (LF) of day 6, and an early start (ES) of day 2. Activity L is being done by a hard-to-get resource. The cost performance index (CPI) is 1.1 and the schedule performance index (SPI) is 0.8. Based on this information what would you be more concerned about?

1. Float
2. Resources
3. Cost
4. Schedule

Q4. A fellow project manager is retiring and moving to the mountains; you will take over his project. Before he leaves, he tells you the project is on schedule but only because he “put the hammer down” on his project team and pushed them relentlessly. Pushing the team to perform activities to accomplish project objectives is a part of:

1. Direct and Manage Project Work
2. Monitor and Control Project Work
3. Control Quality
4. Control Scope

Q5. All of the following are true statements about parametric estimating EXCEPT:

1. The model is scalable.
2. Estimates are based on input from the team
3. The parameters used in the model are readily quantifiable.
4. Historical information is used in the model 63

Q6. Sensitivity analysis helps to determine which risks have the most potential impact on the project. A project manager prepared a display chart of sensitivity analysis for his project. The diagram contained a series of bars with the length of the bars corresponding to the risk impact on the project. The longer the bar, the greater was the risk presented. Such a chart is likely to be:

1. An assessment diagram
2. A triangular distribution
3. A tornado diagram
4. A funnel distribution

Q7. One key characteristic of adaptive lifecycles, such as the agile approach for product development, is that product features are developed using:

1. Sandwiched periods of effort
2. Squeezed periods of zero-error sprints
3. Reverse engineered products
4. Time-boxed periods of work

Q8. You are having difficulty estimating the cost of a project. Which of the following BEST describes the most probable cause of your difficulty?

1. Inadequate scope definition
2. Unavailability of desired resources
3. Lack of historical records from previous projects.
4. Lack of company processes.

Q9. A project manager is trying to coordinate all the activities on the project and has determined the following: Activity A can start immediately and has an estimated duration of 1 week. Activity B can start after activity A is completed and has an estimated duration of 4 weeks. Activity C can start after activity B is completed and has an estimated duration of 5 weeks. Activity D can start after activity 1 is completed and has an estimated duration of 8 weeks. Both activities C and D must be completed before the end of the project. If there is an approved change to activity D and it now takes 10 weeks, what is the duration of the critical path?

1. 10 weeks
2. 11 weeks
3. 14 weeks
4. 8 weeks 70

Q10. What is the difference between management reserves and contingency reserves?

1. Contingency reserves address known knowns, whereas management reserves address known unknowns.
2. Contingency and management reserves both address known unknowns and could be considered the same.
3. Contingency reserves address known unknowns whereas management reserves address unknown unknowns.
4. Contingency reserves are managed by senior management whereas management reserves are managed by the project manager.